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Questions for "KJV only" advocates: Some questions by Steve Rudd, who compiled the remaining questions from others. Which KJV is inspired, since it was revised four times, the last being in Do they realize that the apostle Paul did not use the KJV. Why do KJV only advocates reject the apocrypha, since the original version contained the apocrypha?
If the KJV translators were inspire, why did they use a marginal reference to the apocrypha: If God gave us the KJV as an inspired translation, why would God not repeat the process again in modern language in each language? Why did the KJV translators use marginal note showing alternate translation possibilities?
If the KJV translators were inspired of God in their work, why did they not know it? Why were all the marginal notes and alternate readings removed from modern editions of the KJV, along with the Apocrypha, the opening Dedication to James I, and a lengthy introduction from "The Translators to the Reader.
In defending the KJV's use of archaic language, do you really think it is a good thing that a person must use an Early Modern English dictionary just to understand the Bible in casual reading? Why do KJV only advocates feel that all modern translations are wrong for copyrighting the work of each translation when they copyright the materials on their websites, tracts and books they use to promote the KJV?
Do they not realize that after years all books pass into public domain and that all copyrighted Bibles today will soon be public domain just like the KJV? If "God's truth should not be copyrighted" then why do they copy write their defenses of God's ultimate truth, the Bible?
Is this not the ultimate example of "translation worship"? Reject the original in favour of the translation Did you know that the Textus Receptus, from which the KJV was translated, was based on half a dozen small manuscripts, none earlier than the 10th century?
Did you know that for these verses, the Latin Vulgate was translated into Greek which was then translated into English - a translation of a translation of a translation?
Why should Bible students throw out their Greek dictionaries and buy an "archaic English" dictionary? Are there not word pictures in the original Greek words that the English cannot easily convey? Also differences between "agape" and "phileo" love words.
Why did the translators make mistakes in the chapter summaries in the version?
Wouldn't God have inspired this as well? Why would God inspire the English providentially accurate, but then allow misleading chapter headings? Every chapter of the Song of Songs is interpreted as descriptive of the church.
SoS is God's "mate selection manual. Does not this show that the translators were influenced by their contemporary theology and the Catholic false doctrine of "sainthood"? Do KJV only advocates realize that they stand beside the Mormon church in that both groups believe that they were delivered an "inspired translation"?
Do KJV only advocates realize that the most powerful and irrefutable evidence that neither were translated under inspiration, is the very first edition with all their thousands of errors? KJV- edition; BoM- edition Do KJV only advocates realize that, to point out that all modern translations have the same kinds of mistakes we are accusing of the KJV, is irrelevant, because we maintain that all translations have errors and none were translated under the inspired supervision of God?
Why would the Holy Spirit mis-guide the translators to employ the use of mythical creatures like "unicorn" for wild ox, "satyr" for "wild goat", "cockatrice" for common viper, when today we know what the real name of these creatures is?
Hades is distinct from hell because hades is thrown into hell after judgement: Why are they creating distinctions were none exist? Why did the KJV translators have no consistent rule for differentiating between the use of definite and indefinite articles?
The definite article was also added to the centurion's confession in Mt How can you accept that the Textus Receptus is perfect and error free when Acts 9: Further, how come in Rev Must we possess a perfectly flawless bible translation in order to call it "the word of God"?
If so, how do we know "it" is perfect? Where was "the word of God" prior to ? Were the KJV translators "liars" for saying that "the very meanest [poorest] translation" is still "the word of God"?
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